Is [have] pronounced the same in [What do you have to say?] in the 2 meanings..

[HenHanna]

Is [have] pronounced the same in [What do you have to say?] in the two
meanings?
-- meaning 1. (What must you say?)
-- meaning 2. (Have you anything to say?)

_______________________

Yes, the word "have" is pronounced the same in both meanings.

In both "What do you have to say?" (meaning 1: What must you say?) and
"Have you anything to say?" (meaning 2: Have you anything to say?), the
word "have" is pronounced with the same vowel sound and stress. There is
no difference in pronunciation based on the intended meaning.

[HenHanna]

Is [have] pronounced the same in  [What do you have to say?] in the two
meanings?
-- meaning 1. (What must you say?)
-- meaning 2. (Have you anything to say?)
_______________________
Yes, the word "have" is pronounced the same in both meanings.
In both "What do you have to say?" (meaning 1: What must you say?) and
"Have you anything to say?" (meaning 2: Have you anything to say?), the
word "have" is pronounced with the same vowel sound and stress. There is
no difference in pronunciation based on the intended meaning.

The pronunciation of the word "have" varies depending on the
context in which it is used.

In the phrase "What do you have to say?", the pronunciation differs
based on its implied meaning.

When "have" indicates obligation, as in "What must you say?", it is
pronounced with a voiceless /f/ sound, sounding like /hæf/.

Conversely, when "have" denotes possession, as in "Have you anything to
say?", it is pronounced as /hæv/.

[Ruud Harmsen]

Post by HenHanna

Is [have] pronounced the same in  [What do you have to say?] in the two
meanings?
-- meaning 1. (What must you say?)
-- meaning 2. (Have you anything to say?)
_______________________
Yes, the word "have" is pronounced the same in both meanings.
In both "What do you have to say?" (meaning 1: What must you say?) and
"Have you anything to say?" (meaning 2: Have you anything to say?), the
word "have" is pronounced with the same vowel sound and stress. There is
no difference in pronunciation based on the intended meaning.

The pronunciation of the word "have" varies depending on the
context in which it is used.
In the phrase "What do you have to say?", the pronunciation differs
based on its implied meaning.
When "have" indicates obligation, as in "What must you say?", it is
pronounced with a voiceless /f/ sound, sounding like /hæf/.
Conversely, when "have" denotes possession, as in "Have you anything to
say?", it is pronounced as /hæv/.

Wouldn’t that more likely be a question of assimilation? In <have to>,
/v/ is followed by /t/, so if assimilation takes place, that can
result in [ft].

In <have you>, /v/ is followed by /j/, both voiced, so assimilation to
anything voiceless is very unlikely.

English has less assimilation than many other languages. E.g. in
English <website>, the <b> does not turn into [p], but remains [b],
even though the <s> is /s/ and [s]. But I think that in <have to>,
assimilation does occur.

(Legend:
<written text>
/phonemes/
[phones]
).

Cf. my shortish article https://rudhar.com/lingtics/sheleftu.htm .