Discussion:
Do's and don'ts from Celtic
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Ruud Harmsen
2017-06-05 07:02:23 UTC
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Did you know that using the verb 'to do' for questions and negation
did not originate in English but is from Celtic?

https://aeon.co/essays/why-is-english-so-weirdly-different-from-other-languages

If so, why doesn't French (Vulgar Latin on a Gaulic substrate) have
that too?
Ruud Harmsen
2017-06-05 07:08:23 UTC
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Post by Ruud Harmsen
https://aeon.co/essays/why-is-english-so-weirdly-different-from-other-languages
Is 'eeny, meeny, miny, moe' really from Celtic?

Welsh numbers for example are very different: un, dau, tri, pedwar.

No etymology given here:
https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/eeny,_meeny,_miny,_moe
Nothing Celtic here either:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hickory_Dickory_Dock
Mścisław Wojna-Bojewski
2017-06-08 08:50:37 UTC
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Post by Ruud Harmsen
Post by Ruud Harmsen
https://aeon.co/essays/why-is-english-so-weirdly-different-from-other-languages
Is 'eeny, meeny, miny, moe' really from Celtic?
Welsh numbers for example are very different: un, dau, tri, pedwar.
So are the Irish ones: a haon, a dó, a trí, a ceathair.
Ruud Harmsen
2017-06-09 07:46:29 UTC
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Thu, 8 Jun 2017 01:50:37 -0700 (PDT): M?cis?aw Wojna-Bojewski
Post by Mścisław Wojna-Bojewski
Post by Ruud Harmsen
Post by Ruud Harmsen
https://aeon.co/essays/why-is-english-so-weirdly-different-from-other-languages
Is 'eeny, meeny, miny, moe' really from Celtic?
Welsh numbers for example are very different: un, dau, tri, pedwar.
So are the Irish ones: a haon, a dó, a trí, a ceathair.
Right. Thanks.
--
Ruud Harmsen, http://rudhar.com
Ruud Harmsen
2017-06-05 07:38:55 UTC
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Post by Ruud Harmsen
https://aeon.co/essays/why-is-english-so-weirdly-different-from-other-languages
"We think it’s a nuisance that so many European languages assign
gender to nouns for no reason, with French having female moons and
male boats and such. But actually, it’s us who are odd: almost all
European languages belong to one family – Indo-European – and of all
of them, English is the only one that doesn’t assign genders that
way."

They overlook Afrikaans. And their statement contradicts what else
they write:

"Old English had the crazy genders we would expect of a good European
language – but the Scandies didn’t bother with those, and so now we
have none. "

So then why does Icelandic (first attested in the 12th century) still
have all 3 genders, 2 numbers and 4 cases? As had Old-English.
Ruud Harmsen
2017-06-05 08:54:31 UTC
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Post by Ruud Harmsen
https://aeon.co/essays/why-is-english-so-weirdly-different-from-other-languages
What does "muttly" mean? Not in Collins, not in Merriam-Webster.
--
Ruud Harmsen, http://rudhar.com
Ruud Harmsen
2017-06-05 08:56:59 UTC
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Post by Ruud Harmsen
Post by Ruud Harmsen
https://aeon.co/essays/why-is-english-so-weirdly-different-from-other-languages
What does "muttly" mean? Not in Collins, not in Merriam-Webster.
Derived from mutt: a mongrel dog, cur.

Is that the background of the band name Mötley Crüe
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/M%C3%B6tley_Cr%C3%BCe, Muttly Crew?
--
Ruud Harmsen, http://rudhar.com
Ruud Harmsen
2017-06-05 08:59:10 UTC
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Post by Ruud Harmsen
Post by Ruud Harmsen
Post by Ruud Harmsen
https://aeon.co/essays/why-is-english-so-weirdly-different-from-other-languages
What does "muttly" mean? Not in Collins, not in Merriam-Webster.
Derived from mutt: a mongrel dog, cur.
Is that the background of the band name Mötley Crüe
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/M%C3%B6tley_Cr%C3%BCe, Muttly Crew?
No, from Motley Crew.
--
Ruud Harmsen, http://rudhar.com
Helmut Richter
2017-06-05 09:15:45 UTC
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Post by Ruud Harmsen
https://aeon.co/essays/why-is-english-so-weirdly-different-from-other-languages
"We think it’s a nuisance that so many European languages assign
gender to nouns for no reason, with French having female moons and
male boats and such. But actually, it’s us who are odd: almost all
European languages belong to one family – Indo-European – and of all
of them, English is the only one that doesn’t assign genders that
way."
Not to speak of Farsi, Armenian, Bengali, and some varieties of Kurdish.
They overlook Afrikaans. And their statement contradicts what else
"Old English had the crazy genders we would expect of a good European
language – but the Scandies didn’t bother with those, and so now we
have none. "
So then why does Icelandic (first attested in the 12th century) still
have all 3 genders, 2 numbers and 4 cases? As had Old-English.
Island Scandinavian (Icelandic and Faroese) is somewhat special and
archaic, but mainland Scandinavian has also kept at least a 2-gender
system (locally also 3-gender).

And the story about the Celtic numbers is also questionable, given the
various lists of small numbers in many languages.
--
Helmut Richter
Yusuf B Gursey
2017-06-05 16:10:35 UTC
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Post by Helmut Richter
Post by Ruud Harmsen
https://aeon.co/essays/why-is-english-so-weirdly-different-from-other-languages
"We think it’s a nuisance that so many European languages assign
gender to nouns for no reason, with French having female moons and
male boats and such. But actually, it’s us who are odd: almost all
European languages belong to one family – Indo-European – and of all
of them, English is the only one that doesn’t assign genders that
way."
Not to speak of Farsi, Armenian, Bengali, and some varieties of Kurdish.
Sorani, the dominant version of Kurdish in Iraq, the usual written
language of Iraqi Kurdistan (though the northern parts speek Kurmanji)
does npt have gender, except it seems natural gender in the vocative.
Post by Helmut Richter
They overlook Afrikaans. And their statement contradicts what else
"Old English had the crazy genders we would expect of a good European
language – but the Scandies didn’t bother with those, and so now we
have none. "
So then why does Icelandic (first attested in the 12th century) still
have all 3 genders, 2 numbers and 4 cases? As had Old-English.
Island Scandinavian (Icelandic and Faroese) is somewhat special and
archaic, but mainland Scandinavian has also kept at least a 2-gender
system (locally also 3-gender).
And the story about the Celtic numbers is also questionable, given the
various lists of small numbers in many languages.
--
Helmut Richter
Christian Weisgerber
2017-06-05 18:45:12 UTC
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Post by Helmut Richter
Post by Ruud Harmsen
https://aeon.co/essays/why-is-english-so-weirdly-different-from-other-languages
male boats and such. But actually, it’s us who are odd: almost all
European languages belong to one family – Indo-European – and of all
of them, English is the only one that doesn’t assign genders that
way."
Not to speak of Farsi, Armenian, Bengali, and some varieties of Kurdish.
But those aren't European languages.
Let's not castigate McWhorter for a claim he didn't make.
--
Christian "naddy" Weisgerber ***@mips.inka.de
Helmut Richter
2017-06-06 07:14:51 UTC
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Post by Christian Weisgerber
Post by Helmut Richter
Post by Ruud Harmsen
https://aeon.co/essays/why-is-english-so-weirdly-different-from-other-languages
male boats and such. But actually, it’s us who are odd: almost all
European languages belong to one family – Indo-European – and of all
of them, English is the only one that doesn’t assign genders that
way."
Not to speak of Farsi, Armenian, Bengali, and some varieties of Kurdish.
But those aren't European languages.
Let's not castigate McWhorter for a claim he didn't make.
Yes, I mistook "all of them" as referring to "one family –
Indo-European" and not to "languages that are both European and
Indo-European". I am not sure whether the sentence is unambiguous.
--
Helmut Richter
Ruud Harmsen
2017-06-06 07:39:30 UTC
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Post by Christian Weisgerber
Post by Helmut Richter
Post by Ruud Harmsen
Post by Ruud Harmsen
https://aeon.co/essays/why-is-english-so-weirdly-different-from-other-languages
male boats and such. But actually, it’s us who are odd: almost all
European languages belong to one family – Indo-European – and of all
of them, English is the only one that doesn’t assign genders that
way."
Not to speak of Farsi, Armenian, Bengali, and some varieties of Kurdish.
But those aren't European languages.
Let's not castigate McWhorter for a claim he didn't make.
Yes, I mistook "all of them" as referring to "one family –
Indo-European" and not to "languages that are both European and
Indo-European".
Me too. Only now I become of the difference.
I am not sure whether the sentence is unambiguous.
Neither am I.
--
Ruud Harmsen, http://rudhar.com
Mścisław Wojna-Bojewski
2017-06-08 08:45:15 UTC
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Post by Helmut Richter
Island Scandinavian (Icelandic and Faroese) is somewhat special and
archaic, but mainland Scandinavian has also kept at least a 2-gender
system (locally also 3-gender).
AFAIK demotic Norwegian (by which I mean Norwegian dialects rather than any form of Nynorsk) has mostly a 3-gender system. Bergen dialect famously has a 2-gender system.
Arnaud Fournet
2017-06-05 11:53:15 UTC
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Post by Ruud Harmsen
https://aeon.co/essays/why-is-english-so-weirdly-different-from-other-languages
"We think it’s a nuisance that so many European languages assign
gender to nouns for no reason, with French having female moons and
male boats and such.
Go to hell with your "no reason", you wicked protestant.

I don't need your "no reason", keep it for yourself, you Shaytan.

A.
Ruud Harmsen
2017-06-05 15:31:55 UTC
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Mon, 5 Jun 2017 04:53:15 -0700 (PDT): Arnaud Fournet
Post by Arnaud Fournet
Post by Ruud Harmsen
Post by Ruud Harmsen
https://aeon.co/essays/why-is-english-so-weirdly-different-from-other-languages
"We think it’s a nuisance that so many European languages assign
gender to nouns for no reason, with French having female moons and
male boats and such.
Go to hell with your
My? I quoted a mentioned author. Note the use of " ".
Post by Arnaud Fournet
"no reason", you wicked protestant.
Am I?

https://nl.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bartholomeusnacht =>
https://fr.wikipedia.org/wiki/Massacre_de_la_Saint-Barth%C3%A9lemy

https://nl.wikipedia.org/wiki/Martelaren_van_Gorcum =>
https://fr.wikipedia.org/wiki/Martyrs_de_Gorcum

http://rudhar.com/politics/wilders/onzwaanl.htm =>
http://rudhar.com/politics/wilders/onzwaaia.htm .
Post by Arnaud Fournet
I don't need your "no reason", keep it for yourself, you Shaytan.
I quoted a line from a rather weak article on the nature and history
of English, and you call me the Devil because of that.

What kind of a person are you? You are lucky that I believe in God nor
*sh*ayTaan, but I do understand what YOU mean by such an outrageous
accusation.
--
Ruud Harmsen, http://rudhar.com
Arnaud Fournet
2017-06-05 18:59:11 UTC
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Post by Ruud Harmsen
Mon, 5 Jun 2017 04:53:15 -0700 (PDT): Arnaud Fournet
Post by Arnaud Fournet
Post by Ruud Harmsen
https://aeon.co/essays/why-is-english-so-weirdly-different-from-other-languages
"We think it’s a nuisance that so many European languages assign
gender to nouns for no reason, with French having female moons and
male boats and such.
Go to hell with your
My? I quoted a mentioned author. Note the use of " ".
Post by Arnaud Fournet
"no reason", you wicked protestant.
Am I?
https://nl.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bartholomeusnacht =>
https://fr.wikipedia.org/wiki/Massacre_de_la_Saint-Barth%C3%A9lemy
it's a long-established feature of official historiography to present Protestants as "victims".
Protestants probably killed more and burned more in France than Republicans themselves ever did. And that is no feat to be underestimated.
A.
Post by Ruud Harmsen
https://nl.wikipedia.org/wiki/Martelaren_van_Gorcum =>
https://fr.wikipedia.org/wiki/Martyrs_de_Gorcum
http://rudhar.com/politics/wilders/onzwaanl.htm =>
http://rudhar.com/politics/wilders/onzwaaia.htm .
Post by Arnaud Fournet
I don't need your "no reason", keep it for yourself, you Shaytan.
I quoted a line from a rather weak article on the nature and history
of English, and you call me the Devil because of that.
What kind of a person are you? You are lucky that I believe in God nor
*sh*ayTaan, but I do understand what YOU mean by such an outrageous
accusation.
--
Ruud Harmsen, http://rudhar.com
Ruud Harmsen
2017-06-05 21:58:20 UTC
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Mon, 5 Jun 2017 11:59:11 -0700 (PDT): Arnaud Fournet
Post by Arnaud Fournet
Post by Ruud Harmsen
Mon, 5 Jun 2017 04:53:15 -0700 (PDT): Arnaud Fournet
Post by Arnaud Fournet
Post by Ruud Harmsen
Post by Ruud Harmsen
https://aeon.co/essays/why-is-english-so-weirdly-different-from-other-languages
"We think it’s a nuisance that so many European languages assign
gender to nouns for no reason, with French having female moons and
male boats and such.
Go to hell with your
My? I quoted a mentioned author. Note the use of " ".
Post by Arnaud Fournet
"no reason", you wicked protestant.
Am I?
https://nl.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bartholomeusnacht =>
https://fr.wikipedia.org/wiki/Massacre_de_la_Saint-Barth%C3%A9lemy
it's a long-established feature of official historiography to present Protestants as "victims".
Protestants probably killed more and burned more in France than Republicans themselves ever did. And that is no feat to be underestimated.
Which is covered by the next two links. But you don't even look.

That makes me objective, and you a fool.
Post by Arnaud Fournet
Post by Ruud Harmsen
https://nl.wikipedia.org/wiki/Martelaren_van_Gorcum =>
https://fr.wikipedia.org/wiki/Martyrs_de_Gorcum
http://rudhar.com/politics/wilders/onzwaanl.htm =>
http://rudhar.com/politics/wilders/onzwaaia.htm .
Post by Arnaud Fournet
I don't need your "no reason", keep it for yourself, you Shaytan.
I quoted a line from a rather weak article on the nature and history
of English, and you call me the Devil because of that.
What kind of a person are you? You are lucky that I believe in God nor
*sh*ayTaan, but I do understand what YOU mean by such an outrageous
accusation.
--
Ruud Harmsen, http://rudhar.com
--
Ruud Harmsen, http://rudhar.com
Christian Weisgerber
2017-06-05 17:45:15 UTC
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Post by Ruud Harmsen
"Old English had the crazy genders we would expect of a good European
language – but the Scandies didn’t bother with those, and so now we
have none. "
So then why does Icelandic (first attested in the 12th century) still
have all 3 genders, 2 numbers and 4 cases? As had Old-English.
He doesn't mean that Old Norse had no genders, but that the Vikings,
when they imperfectly learned Old English as a second language,
dispensed with the gender system.
--
Christian "naddy" Weisgerber ***@mips.inka.de
Franz Gnaedinger
2017-06-06 07:05:23 UTC
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Post by Ruud Harmsen
https://aeon.co/essays/why-is-english-so-weirdly-different-from-other-languages
"We think it’s a nuisance that so many European languages assign
gender to nouns for no reason, with French having female moons and
male boats and such. But actually, it’s us who are odd: almost all
European languages belong to one family – Indo-European – and of all
of them, English is the only one that doesn’t assign genders that
way."
As for the moon I have a Magdalenian explanation. Marie E.P. König identified
the bull of cave paintings, for example Lascaux, as moon bull, and the sun
as sun horse. For the winter sun horse I propose CA LAB, sky cold, wherefrom
gallop and German Klepper; for the spring sun horse CA BEL, sky warm, in
a longer form CA BEL IAS, sky warm healing, the spring sun horse healing
ailments of a long and harsh winter, ABelios AFelios Helios, the Greek sun
god with his quadriga of horses; and the summer sun horse CA BAL, sky hot,
wherefrom Latin caballus Italian cavallo French cheval Spanish caballo
(the Latin word not yet explained, says my dictionary). Now for the moon.
There are six words for the lunar phases, for example GEN for the three
days of the young moon, a word present in genesis, and NEG for the three
days of the old moon, accounting for negation. Then there is LUN for a full
round form, accounting for Italian la luna French la lune, and CA LUN,
sky CA of the full round form LUN for the full moon, accounting for Greek
Selene. Note the shift from the bull to the moon goddesses Luna and Selene.
Words carry a long history with them.
Franz Gnaedinger
2017-06-07 06:54:47 UTC
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Post by Franz Gnaedinger
As for the moon I have a Magdalenian explanation. Marie E.P. König identified
the bull of cave paintings, for example Lascaux, as moon bull, and the sun
as sun horse. For the winter sun horse I propose CA LAB, sky cold, wherefrom
gallop and German Klepper; for the spring sun horse CA BEL, sky warm, in
a longer form CA BEL IAS, sky warm healing, the spring sun horse healing
ailments of a long and harsh winter, ABelios AFelios Helios, the Greek sun
god with his quadriga of horses; and the summer sun horse CA BAL, sky hot,
wherefrom Latin caballus Italian cavallo French cheval Spanish caballo
(the Latin word not yet explained, says my dictionary). Now for the moon.
There are six words for the lunar phases, for example GEN for the three
days of the young moon, a word present in genesis, and NEG for the three
days of the old moon, accounting for negation. Then there is LUN for a full
round form, accounting for Italian la luna French la lune, and CA LUN,
sky CA of the full round form LUN for the full moon, accounting for Greek
Selene. Note the shift from the bull to the moon goddesses Luna and Selene.
Words carry a long history with them.
By the way, the inverse of LUN for a full round form is NUL for an empty
round form, indicating the empty moon, German Leermond, opposite of the
full moon, accounting for French nul 'none, nothing, invalid, unimportant'
German Null 'zero' English null and nullity Italian nulla 'nothing or a
little thing' Latin nihil 'nothing'. Hindu mathematicians introduced zero
as a cipher (and not just as place value) in the 9th century AD and gave
it as a small circle o which might well have been inspired by the empty
moon. - Still fascinated by how many information words carry when studied
as as groups and not just as single words.
Christian Weisgerber
2017-06-05 17:39:23 UTC
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Post by Ruud Harmsen
https://aeon.co/essays/why-is-english-so-weirdly-different-from-other-languages
Oh, that article again.

McWhorter originally wrote a more scholarly article on that topic,
"What happened to English?". I remember reading it online, but I
can't find a freely available copy now. Pity.

The article above is his pop-sci treatment of the topic, so it
suffers from oversimplification, overgeneralization (McWhorter may
have never zapped into a French TV channel when a spelling bee was
on, but I have), lack of rigor (notice how he wildly shifts his
point of comparison), addresses an audience that knows very little
about languages or the history of English, and pushes some of his
pet ideas. The hook of English being somehow "unique" fits in well
with the understanding of American exceptionalism that's pervasive
among the intended audience. It's on par with the usual drivel
that is filling the "science" section of newspapers and magazines.
Don't take it too seriously.
Post by Ruud Harmsen
Did you know that using the verb 'to do' for questions and negation
did not originate in English but is from Celtic?
I'm aware that some people are pushing this claim. I find it
unconvincing. I don't know the Celtic languages, which may influence
my opinion, but I'm under the impression little is known in general
about Celtic at the time this language contact would have happened.

Periphrastic do is NOT unusual in West Germanic. Even standard
German resorts to it when you want to put the verb first for emphasis.
Say, you want to criticize the comprehensibility of Chomsky's
latest writing:
Verstehen tut man das nicht.
Uses of periphrastic do similar to that in English are floating
around in the German dialectosphere. Of course that is not something
you'll find in a textbook sketch of German grammar.
Post by Ruud Harmsen
If so, why doesn't French (Vulgar Latin on a Gaulic substrate) have
that too?
Oh, people are on and off attributing features of French to Gaulish,
too. Or Frankish.

Generally speaking, it seems very hard to prove or disprove any of
this. There is a remarkable lack of falsifiability. The problem
is that most of our understanding of language change is descriptive;
we see what is happening, but there is no comprehensive theory that
can explain how and why or make predictions. Some processes are
being elucidated, but it's bits and pieces.

McWhorter may be right with his assertion that it is strange that
English marks the third person singular present tense. But does a
historic accident make for a deep mystery? The most interesting
question, to my mind, is why English maintains this personal marker.
Some nonstandard varieties of English drop it, but overall -s is
hanging on. There must be some pressure to keep the distinction.
A lesser question is how Northern -s replaced original -th in that
position. Since it came from the North, blaming the Vikings seems
safe, but the details are murky, starting with the fact that Old
Norse certainly didn't have -s as a personal marker. Also, Northern
use of -s exists in different patterns that don't necessarily agree
with Modern Standard English. Possibly the least interesting
question is how among all the personal markers only -th survived.
A simple sound change may have killed all but -st and -th, and -st
disappeared when "you" displaced "thou".

Which brings me to my very own pet hypothesis about what happened
to English. I'll point out right away that I know virtually nothing
about Middle English. This is bad because it means I may be spouting
nonsense. But it is also good, because it makes my idea falsifiable.
Somebody who knows Middle English can look at it and say whether
it agrees with what is known.

If you look at the inflections of Old English and what remains in
(Early) Modern English, how do you get from one to the other? First,
you collapse all unstressed vowels in the endings to schwa. (Let's
spell it -e-.) That's exactly what also marks the transition from
Old High German to Middle High German, and weakening of unstressed
vowels is an ordinary sound change. Then the crucial step: loss
of final -e and -en, again a simple sound change. Denasalization
of syllabic n to schwa, loss of final schwa. Removing -e and -en
with their high functional load has enormous consequences:
* In the verb system, you immediately get the survival of the
personal endings of Early Modern English: -st, -th.
* The whole system of determiner/adjective marking for gender and
case collapses. Remaining endings like -es and -er can't carry
the load and are leveled out.
* The two most common plural endings disappear, clearing the way
for -(e)s to spread through the noun system.
I don't know if that's what happened, but it would explain a lot.
Incidentally, without resorting to putative Celtic or Norse influence.
--
Christian "naddy" Weisgerber ***@mips.inka.de
Ruud Harmsen
2017-06-05 22:04:36 UTC
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Mon, 5 Jun 2017 17:39:23 -0000 (UTC): Christian Weisgerber
Post by Christian Weisgerber
Post by Ruud Harmsen
https://aeon.co/essays/why-is-english-so-weirdly-different-from-other-languages
Oh, that article again.
McWhorter originally wrote a more scholarly article on that topic,
"What happened to English?". I remember reading it online, but I
can't find a freely available copy now. Pity.
The article above is his pop-sci treatment of the topic, so it
suffers from oversimplification, overgeneralization (McWhorter may
have never zapped into a French TV channel when a spelling bee was
on, but I have), lack of rigor (notice how he wildly shifts his
point of comparison), addresses an audience that knows very little
about languages or the history of English, and pushes some of his
pet ideas. The hook of English being somehow "unique" fits in well
with the understanding of American exceptionalism that's pervasive
among the intended audience. It's on par with the usual drivel
that is filling the "science" section of newspapers and magazines.
Don't take it too seriously.
Quite agree.
Post by Christian Weisgerber
Post by Ruud Harmsen
Did you know that using the verb 'to do' for questions and negation
did not originate in English but is from Celtic?
I'm aware that some people are pushing this claim. I find it
unconvincing. I don't know the Celtic languages, which may influence
my opinion, but I'm under the impression little is known in general
about Celtic at the time this language contact would have happened.
Periphrastic do is NOT unusual in West Germanic.
It sometimes occurs in colloquial Dutch. I doubt if that's under the
influence of English.
Post by Christian Weisgerber
Even standard
German resorts to it when you want to put the verb first for emphasis.
Say, you want to criticize the comprehensibility of Chomsky's
Verstehen tut man das nicht.
Echt begrijpen doe ik dat niet. Well, I do, this is a very good
example.
Post by Christian Weisgerber
Uses of periphrastic do similar to that in English are floating
around in the German dialectosphere. Of course that is not something
you'll find in a textbook sketch of German grammar.
Post by Ruud Harmsen
If so, why doesn't French (Vulgar Latin on a Gaulic substrate) have
that too?
Oh, people are on and off attributing features of French to Gaulish,
too. Or Frankish.
--
Ruud Harmsen, http://rudhar.com
Christian Weisgerber
2017-06-05 17:49:06 UTC
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Post by Ruud Harmsen
Did you know that using the verb 'to do' for questions and negation
did not originate in English but is from Celtic?
https://aeon.co/essays/why-is-english-so-weirdly-different-from-other-languages
If so, why doesn't French (Vulgar Latin on a Gaulic substrate) have
that too?
You forget Islandic. Genetics shows that Iceland was settled
principally by Norwegian men who brought along Irish women. A
constellation that clearly indicates that Icelandic must show strong
Celtic influence... uh... uhm... well...
--
Christian "naddy" Weisgerber ***@mips.inka.de
Mścisław Wojna-Bojewski
2017-06-08 08:49:51 UTC
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Post by Ruud Harmsen
Did you know that using the verb 'to do' for questions and negation
did not originate in English but is from Celtic?
https://aeon.co/essays/why-is-english-so-weirdly-different-from-other-languages
In Irish, there is no such use of "to do". Instead, verbal particles are used: téann = goes, an dtéann? = does...go?, ní théann = doesn't go, nach dtéann? = doesn't...go?
Ruud Harmsen
2017-06-09 07:48:00 UTC
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Thu, 8 Jun 2017 01:49:51 -0700 (PDT): M?cis?aw Wojna-Bojewski
Post by Mścisław Wojna-Bojewski
Post by Ruud Harmsen
Did you know that using the verb 'to do' for questions and negation
did not originate in English but is from Celtic?
https://aeon.co/essays/why-is-english-so-weirdly-different-from-other-languages
In Irish, there is no such use of "to do". Instead, verbal particles are used: téann = goes, an dtéann? = does...go?, ní théann = doesn't go, nach dtéann? = doesn't...go?
Thanks.
--
Ruud Harmsen, http://rudhar.com
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